The belief that miracles are impossible often arises from a
naturalistic worldview. Strict naturalism completely rejects any
notion of the supernatural.{5} All that exists are atoms and the
void.{6} If naturalists are right, it follows that miracles are
indeed impossible. While strange things that we do not fully
understand may sometimes occur, there must, in principle, be a
naturalistic explanation for every event in the universe.
But are such naturalists right? Since my aim in this article is to
explore the historicity of Jesus' virgin birth, I will not attempt
now to refute naturalism. Instead, I will simply point out that if
a personal Creator God exists (and there is good evidence to
believe that One does), then miracles are at least possible. For
clearly, such a God might choose to intervene in His creation to
bring about an effect for which there was no prior natural cause.
And that is at least one way of describing a miracle.
Thus, if a personal Creator God exists, miracles are possible. And
if miracles are possible, then Jesus' virginal conception and birth
are possible. And if the virgin birth is possible, then the only
way we can determine if it actually occurred is by carefully
examining the evidence both for and against it. Next we will
continue our inquiry by looking at an ancient prophecy that some
think actually foretold Christ's virgin birth!
Now all this took place that what was spoken by the Lord through
the prophet might be fulfilled, saying, "Behold, the virgin shall
be with child, and shall bear a son, and they shall call his name
Immanuel," which.... means, "God with us."{8}
Some scholars are unimpressed with Matthew's interpretation of
Isaiah. John Dominic Crossan unequivocally states, "The prophecy in
Isaiah says nothing whatsoever about a virginal conception."
Let's acknowledge that the original context of Isaiah's prophecy
may not be exclusively about the virginal conception of Jesus. The
year is 734 B.C. and King Ahaz of Judah is terrified to learn that
Aram and Israel have formed an alliance against him. Isaiah is sent
to reassure Ahaz that God is in control and that the aims of the
alliance will not succeed. Ahaz is told to request a sign from the
Lord, a means of confirming the truth of Isaiah's message. But he
refuses!{10} Annoyed at the king's stubbornness, Isaiah declares
that the Lord will give a sign anyway: an almah (a maiden of
marriageable age) will conceive a son and call his name Immanuel.
He will eat curds and honey upon reaching an age of moral
discernment. But before this happens, the land of the two dreaded
kings will be forsaken.{11} Should this prophecy be understood to
refer exclusively to Jesus' virginal conception? If so, how does it
relate to the promise that the Aram-Israel alliance would soon be
broken and their lands forsaken (a promise fulfilled within twelve
years time)?{12}
But even if we've correctly explained Matthew's use of Isaiah's
prophecy, we must still consider the alleged contradictions in the
infancy narratives of Matthew and Luke. We will address this issue
in the next section.
First, some think Matthew implies that Mary and Joseph resided
permanently in Bethlehem before Jesus' birth, whereas Luke says
they lived in Nazareth and only came to Bethlehem for the
census.{16} But Matthew never actually tells us the couple's
residence before Jesus' birth. He simply says that Jesus was born
in Bethlehem, just like Luke.{17}
But if Mary and Joseph resided in Nazareth prior to Jesus' birth,
then why, after their flight into Egypt, does Matthew seem to
suggest that they intended to return to Judea rather than their
home in Nazareth?{18} It's helpful to recall that Jesus was "the
promised king of David's line."{19} Might not his parents, then,
have wished to raise Him in His ancestral home?{20} This is
actually quite probable. But regardless of their original
intention, let's not forget that Matthew goes on to write that
Joseph, being warned in a dream not to settle in Judea, did take
his family back to Nazareth after all.{21}
Finally, some think Luke's narrative leaves no room for Matthew's
account about the visit of the magi and sojourn in Egypt. These
events could only have occurred after Jesus' presentation in the
Temple, forty days after His birth.{22} But Luke 2:39, which
concludes this presentation, says that when Jesus' parents "had
performed everything according to the Law of the Lord, they
returned to . . . Nazareth." This raises a question. Does Luke's
statement prohibit an initial return to Bethlehem, thus casting
doubt on Matthew's account of the magi and flight into Egypt?
It's important to notice the emphasis in Luke 2:39. It's not so
much on when Mary and Joseph returned to Nazareth, but rather that
they did not return until after they had fulfilled the requirements
of the Law.{23} Strictly speaking, Luke 2:39 does not disallow the
events recorded by Matthew. Luke may not have known of the visit of
the magi and flight into Egypt, or he may have chosen to omit this
information. Either way, however, "the silence of one narrative
regarding events recorded in another is quite a different thing
from actual contradiction."{24} Thus, the virgin birth cannot be
dismissed on the grounds that the infancy narratives are
contradictory--they're not.
But aren't we forgetting the most obvious hypothesis of all? Is the
story of Jesus' virgin birth simply a myth, comparable to other
such stories from the ancient world? We'll examine this question in
the next section.
Is Crossan's hypothesis plausible? One can certainly find scholars
who embrace such ideas. But a careful comparison of the biblical
accounts of Jesus' birth with the many miraculous birth stories in
pagan literature reveals several important differences.
First, the accounts of Jesus' virgin birth show none "of the
standard literary marks of the myth genre."{28} Matthew and Luke
are written as history--not mythology. They mention places, people,
and events that can be verified through normal methods of
historical and archaeological inquiry. The beginning of Luke's
gospel "reads very much like prefaces to other generally trusted
historical and biographical works of antiquity."{29} Thus, there is
a clear difference in genre between the gospels and pagan myths.
Another difference can be seen in the religious atmosphere of these
stories. The pagan myths are polytheistic; the gospels,
monotheistic. The miraculous birth stories in pagan literature
usually focus on a god's lust for some mortal woman.{30} Since this
lust is typically gratified through sexual intercourse, the
resulting conception and birth are hardly virginal. We are thus far
removed from the description of Jesus' virginal conception in the
gospels. There we find no hint that God's love for Mary in any way
parallels the lust of Apollo for the mother of Octavius.
These are just two of many differences between the gospel accounts
of Jesus' birth and the miraculous birth stories in pagan
literature. But even these differences make the theory of pagan
derivation unlikely. Remember, this theory requires us to believe
that strict moral monotheists, who claimed to be writing history,
borrowed some of the crudest elements from polytheistic myths to
tell the story of Jesus' birth! Frankly, it's incredible. But could
a theory of Jewish derivation still work? We'll conclude with this
question.
But would this really have been natural? There's actually no clear
evidence that pre-Christian Judaism understood Isaiah 7:14 as a
prophecy of the Messiah at all, much less his virginal
conception.{33} Indeed, many contend that the Hebrew text of Isaiah
says nothing whatever about a virginal conception and birth.{34}
But if that is so, it would seem quite unlikely for early Jewish
Christians to have read the verse in such a way!
Others believe the translation of Isaiah from Hebrew to Greek,
known as the Septuagint, may have provided the initial impulse for
such a reading. The Greek text of Isaiah 7:14 translates the Hebrew
term almah, meaning "a young woman of marriageable age,"
with the Greek term parthenos, meaning "virgin". Could this
translation have led some Jewish Christians to conclude that Isaiah
was prophesying the virgin birth of the Messiah? And if so, might
they have invented the story of Jesus' virgin birth as the alleged
"fulfillment" of Isaiah's prediction?
While one can claim that they might have done so, there's no
evidence that they actually did. But if not, what could account for
early Christianity's understanding of Isaiah 7:14 as a prophecy of
the Messiah's virgin birth? Well, the historical reality of Jesus'
virgin birth could have done so! After all, it's one thing to think
that early Jewish Christians, without any precedent in Jewish
thought, would invent the story of Jesus' virgin birth from an
imaginative interpretation of Isaiah's prophecy. But it's another
thing entirely to think that by beginning with a historically
reliable account of Jesus' virgin birth, they eventually concluded
that Isaiah had indeed prophesied such an event.{35}
Only the latter hypothesis is supported by evidence. Particularly
important in this regard are the gospels of Matthew and Luke. These
sources have been shown to be quite historically reliable. Their
accounts of Jesus' birth, though apparently written independently
of one another, are free of contradiction. Indeed, apart from an
unproven bias against the supernatural, there is little reason to
doubt the accuracy of their reports. Thus, there do appear to be
adequate grounds for believing that Jesus really was born of a
virgin!
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